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CETD

CETD. Military Requirements for Petty Officer First Class. Exit. Division damage control petty officers are normally assigned for what minimum period of time?. A. One year B. Two years C. Three months D. Six months Answer: D 434-6-7-9. Exit. Exit.

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CETD

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  1. CETD Military Requirements forPetty Officer First Class Exit

  2. Division damage control petty officers are normally assigned for what minimum period of time? • A. One year • B. Two years • C. Three months • D. Six months • Answer: D • 434-6-7-9 Exit Exit

  3. Who is responsible for carrying out the requirements of command damage control training? • A. Commanding officer • B. Executive officer • C. Operations officer • D. Fire marshal • Answer: B • 433-6-7-7 Exit Exit

  4. The Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop is conducted by which of the following groups? • A. Command Training Team (CTT) • B. Command Assessment Team (CAT) • C. Command Rights and Responsibilities Team • D. Striker Board • Answer: A • 378-6-3-20 Exit Exit

  5. After a compartment has been flooded with CO2, what minimum length of time should you wait before opening the compartment? • A. 1 hour • B. 30 minutes • C. 15 minutes • D. 10 minutes • Answer: C • 441-6-7-39 Exit

  6. On ships having a Marine detachment, brow and pier sentries report to which of the following individuals? • A. Officer of the deck • B. Sergeant of the guard • C. Petty officer of the watch • D. Junior officer of the deck • Answer: B • 411-6-5-30 Exit

  7. Who is responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the policies of the Navy Drug and Alcohol Abuse Program (NADAP)? • A. DAPA • B. CAAC • C. ARD • D. NAVALREHCEN • Answer: A • 393-6-4-20 Exit

  8. Assigning your junior petty officers challenging jobs will increase which of the following skills? • A. Management • B. Leadership • C. Organizational • D. Administrative • Answer: B • 356-6-1-64 Exit

  9. The number of tag-out logs that each ship class must maintain is specified by which of the following individuals? • A. Chief of Naval Operations • B. Commanding officer • C. Squadron commander • D. Force commander • Answer: D • 429-6-6-27 Exit

  10. One definition of a problem drinker is one who must drink to function or to cope with life. How does the Navy define "alcoholism"? • A. Complying with ordinary social drinking customs • B. Drinking alcohol even though under the state-approved age for purchasing alcoholic beverages • C. Depending on alcohol psychologically and/or physiologically • D. Doing something under the influence of alcohol that would not normally be done • Answer: C • 392-6-4-11 Exit

  11. Each personnel qualification standard is divided into which f the following subdivision (s)? • A. Systems • B. Fundamentals • C. Watchstations/Maintenance actions • D. All of the above • Answer: D • 402-6-4-55 Exit

  12. Personnel should be entered in a hearing testing program if they are required to work in a designated noise hazard area with sound levels that average more than what maximum decibel (dB) level? • A. 25 dB • B. 56 dB • C. 78 dB • D. 84 dB • Answer: D • 427-6-6-21 Exit

  13. If authority is given to a subordinate to sign official correspondence for the commanding officer, which of the following lines usually appears below the subordinate's signature? • A. By direction • B. By authority of • C. For the commander • D. For the commanding officer • Answer: A • 367-6-2-40 Exit

  14. Which of the following terms is used to describe an unplanned event that interrupts work and produces damage and/or injury? • A. Mishap • B. Mistake • C. Misconduct • D. Mismanagement • Answer: A • 415-6-5-48 Exit

  15. Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory? • A. EDL • B. JSN • C. OPTAR • D. POA&M • Answer: C • 352-6-1-48 Exit

  16. The Navy's enlisted performance evaluation system provides an opportunity for individuals to submit information they feel should be included in their performance evaluation. Which of the following methods is used by an individual to provide this information? • A. Writing a rough evaluation for the supervisor • B. Submitting an Individual Input Form to the supervisor • C. Submitting a letter through the chain of command • D. Indicating on the signature block of the report form that a statement is desired • Answer: B • 358-6-2-2

  17. Commanding officers may delegate certain personnel to sign performance evaluations. Which, if any, of the following performance evaluations may be signed by someone who has been delegated this authority? • A. Evaluations that contain a recommendation for advancement to paygrade E-8 • B. Evaluations the contain a recommendation for promotion to officer status • C. Evaluations that withdrew a member's recommendation for advancement after authorization has been received • D. None of the above • Answer: D • 365-6-2-32

  18. Which of the following terms describes the Navy's recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is incompatible with the Navy's effort to instill pride and professionalism? • A. Zero defects • B. Zero tolerance • C. Screening with meaning • D. Self-referrals preferable • Answer: B • 381-6-3-37

  19. The command's enlisted safety committee should convene according to what schedule? • A. Weekly • B. Monthly • C. Bimonthly • D. Biannually • Answer: B • 422-6-6-6

  20. Which of the following odors may indicate the presence of blood agents? • A. Garlic • B. New-mown hay • C. Bitter almonds • D. Fruity camphor • Answer: C • 449-6-7-75 Exit

  21. Which of the following characteristics or symptoms identifies a person suffering from alcoholism? • A. Physical dependence • B. Psychological dependence • C. Both A and B above • D. Infrequent consumption • Answer: C • 390-6-4-3

  22. Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by one of the Navy's drug screening laboratories? • A. 1 • B. 2 • C. 3 • D. 5 • Answer: C • 383-6-3-40

  23. The authority which is granted to all officers and petty officers to fulfill their duties and responsibilities is known as what type of authority? • A. General • B. Unlimited • C. Meritorious • D. Organizational • Answer: A • 394-6-4-23

  24. Which of the following tools does a supervisor use to identify and develop solutions to eliminate hazards? • A. Job inventory • B. Job safety analysis • C. Incidental observation • D. Deliberate observation • Answer: D • 420-6-6-1

  25. Sign-off authority for final PQS qualification may be delegated to what minimum level of authority? • A. Division CPO • B. Department head • C. Division Officer • D. Work center supervisor • Answer: B • 403-6-4-61 Exit

  26. The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by which of the following factors? • A. The number of information addressees • B. The information contained in the correspondence • C. The security classification of related documents • D. The security classification of references contained in the correspondence • Answer: B • 372-6-2-67

  27. In the absence of the commanding officer in port, who is primarily responsible for the safety and proper operation of the unit? • A. Safety officer • B. MAA safety force • C. Officer of the deck • D. Command master chief • Answer: C • 409-6-5-25

  28. At-sea, which of the following indications may be a symptom of a dangerous condition? • A. Wisp of smoke • B. Minor loss of power • C. Excessive warmth of a bulkhead • D. Each of the above • Answer: D • 439-6-7-29

  29. In evaluating the performance of an E-3, when, if ever, should you assign a grade in block 36, Directing? • A. During each evaluation period • B. When the E-3 requests to be evaluated in this area • C. When the E-3 has clearly demonstrated abilities in this area • D. Never • Answer: C • 363-6-2-27

  30. If you make a mistake in the ship's deck log, which of the following procedures would you use to correct the mistake? • A. Draw a single line through the error, insert the correct entry, and initial • B. Print the word "error" after the mistake and insert the correct entry • C. Erase the error and insert the correct entry • D. Black out the error, insert the correct entry, and initial • Answer: A • 413-6-5-38 Exit

  31. CMEO is an equal opportunity management system controlled primarily at which of the following levels? • A. Command • B. Secretary of Defense • C. Secretary of the Navy • D. Chief of Naval Operations • Answer: A • 376-6-3-15

  32. When the term "TRIDENT" is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements? • A. The base • B. The missile • C. The submarine • D. All of the above • Answer: D • 346-6-1-20

  33. The primary mission of our submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships? • A. Submarines • B. Destroyers • C. Carriers • D. Cargo • Answer: A • 345-6-1-18

  34. The enlisted service record contains both official and unofficial papers. • A. TRUE • B. FALSE • Answer: TRUE • 404-6-5-1

  35. Depressant overdoses, when taken with alcohol, may result in which of the following conditions? • A. Death • B. Articulate speech • C. Mellow disposition • D. Keen sense of humor • Answer: A • 386-6-3-52 Exit

  36. Who should approve changes to the division's watch, quarter, and station bill? • A. Executive officer • B. Commanding officer • C. Officer of the deck • D. Command duty officer • Answer: A • 399-6-4-43

  37. Which of the following personnel are subject to participation in the urinalysis testing program? • A. Officer personnel under the age of 25 only • B. Enlisted personnel in paygrades E-4 and below only • C. Enlisted personnel only, regardless of rank or age • D. All enlisted and officer personnel, regardless of the rank or age • Answer: D • 387-6-3-58

  38. The ship's deck log may be used in which of the following ways? • A. As a chronological record of ship's events • B. As legal evidence in fact finding proceedings • C. Both A and B above • D. As a record of the proceedings of a safety committee meeting • Answer: C • 412-6-5-36

  39. What is the highest precedence normally authorized for administrative messages? • A. Immediate • B. Priority • C. Routine • D. Flash • Answer: B • 369-6-2-51

  40. Which of the following officer programs does/do not require a college education? • A. Officer Candidate School Program • B. Chief Warrant Officer Program • C. Limited Duty Officer Program • D. Both B and C above • Answer: D • 406-6-5-7 Exit

  41. The damage control administrative organization is contained within what department? • A. Engineering • B. Operations • C. Weapons • D. Deck • Answer: A • 435-6-7-13

  42. A drug abuser who suffers long periods of time without sleeping or eating is probably abusing which of the following types of drugs? • A. Alcohol • B. Narcotics • C. Stimulants • D. Depressants • Answer: C • 384-6-3-47

  43. As the reporting supervisor evaluating a member who services on a general court-martial during the reporting period, which of the following comments would be appropriate for the Evaluation Comments section? • A. Served as a member of a general court-martial • B. Served as a member of a general court-martial; finding of guilty on all counts • C. Served as a member of a general court-martial; performance of duty in keeping with the member's military performance trait grade • D. All of the above • Answer: A • 366-6-2-36

  44. Which of the following officers is responsible for the administration of the CBR defense bill? • A. Safety officer • B. Division officer • C. CBR defense officer • D. Damage control assistant • Answer: D • 401-6-4-50

  45. The number one drug problem in the United States is the abuse of which of the following substances? • A. Alcohol • B. Cocaine • C. Marijuana • D. Barbiturates • Answer: A • 389-6-4-1 Exit

  46. Who trains safety petty officers and damage control petty officers in selecting, fit-testing, and maintaining respirators? • A. Fire marshall • B. Division officer • C. Damage control assistant • D. Gas-free engineering officer • Answer: D • 426-6-6-16

  47. If a nerve agent is in the atmosphere in your location, you should don your protective mask. The mask may be removed under which of the following circumstances? • A. One hour has elapsed since the attack • B. Two hours have elapsed since the attack • C. The all clear signal is given • D. The agent can no longer be seen in the atmosphere • Answer: C • 447-6-7-61

  48. When EMI is assigned to correct a military deficiency, which of the following limitations normally is observed? • A. EMI is assigned in favor of awarding extra duty • B. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily • C. EMI is assigned only during normal working hours • D. EMI is assigned, where possible, as a substitute for punitive measures covered under the UCMJ • Answer: B • 397-6-4-33

  49. When a message is unclassified, what word or abbreviation should appear on the classification line? • A. UNCLASSIFIED • B. NOCLASS • C. NONCLAS • D. UNCLAS • Answer: D • 370-6-2-56

  50. As a minimum, how often should you assess your division's personnel and material readiness? • A. Daily • B. Biweekly • C. Monthly • D. Quarterly • Answer: A • 350-6-1-44 Exit

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