Malpeli Revision

Malpeli Revision 1 - 99

1. The recommended activity levels for adults (CDHAC) are: A: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 60 minutes every day of the week B: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum) C: Participating in vigorous activity that makes you “huff & puff” for 30 minutes three to four days per week D: Participating in vigorous activity that makes you “huff & puff” for 60 minutes five days per week (minimum) ANSWER: B: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum)

2. The physical activity pyramid encourages people to: A: Participate most in Level 2 activities B: Participate most in Level 3 activities C: Participate least in Level 1 activities D: Participate least in Level 4 activities ANSWER: D: Participate least in Level 4 activities

3. The following is an example of an objective measure of physical activity: A: Heart rate monitoring B: Self-report logs C: Physical activity diary D: None of the above ANSWER: A Heart rate monitoring

4. For overweight and obese individuals, to prevent weight regain once weight is lost: A: 30-60 minutes of physical activity is recommended on at least 5 days per week B: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended on at least 5 days per week C: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day D: 30-60 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day ANSWER: C: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day

5. Stage 6 of the “Stages of Change” model is known as the Termination stage which: A: Allows participants to temporarily “drop out” of physical activity for a period of time B: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years C: Can only be experienced when Stage 5 has been met for at least 6 months D: None of the above ANSWER: B: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years

6. The following is an example of a “constructed environment” A: A skate park next to a school B: A statue in the local mall C: Paving to replace footpaths D: None of the above ANSWER: A: A skate park next to a school

7. The mass media promotes involvement in physical activity by: A: Increasing interest in physical activity B: Providing information about the consequences of inactivity C: Providing information about the psychological benefits of being active D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

8. The most effective school based setting physical activity promoting strategies: A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits B: Promote increased physical activity during breaks, and especially lunchtime C: Offer before and after school sporting programs D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

9. A benefit associated with having a physically active group of office workers include: A: Reduced absenteeism B: Increased productivity C: Reduced staff turnover D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

10. At rest, most of our energy comes from: A: Fats B: Carbohydrates C: Proteins D: A combination of all of the above ANSWER: A: Fats

11. The ATP-PC system is: A: Anaerobic B: Quick to supply energy C: Limited by the amount of available phosphocreatine D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

12. The energy system interplay is best described when: A: ATP is released from the ATP-PC system, then the LA system and lastly the aerobic system B: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems C: The three energy systems are used during play rather than rest D: The three energy systems collectively supply ATP to working muscles in a sequential pattern ANSWER: B: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems

13. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs : A: The LA system becomes the major energy supplier B: The PC system is able to replenish energy stores now that it is not being used and “rested” C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis D: An active recovery should commence immediately ANSWER: C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

14. Steady state occurs when: A: Oxygen consumption reaches a maximum level B: The Cori cycle starts to break down built up lactic acid and convert it to glycogen to be reused C: The heart and lungs have had sufficient time to supply working muscles with oxygen D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand ANSWER: D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

15. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 100m sprinter (athletics) is: A: PC depletion B: Lowered muscle Ph C: Accumulation of iron(s) – Fe, Ph, Al, etc. D: Lactic Acid accumulation ANSWER: A: PC depletion

16. Following a 10 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period? A: 10 seconds (1: 1 work : rest ratio) B: 180 seconds C: 240 seconds D: 300 seconds ANSWER: B: 180 seconds

17. Males exhibit greater muscular strength than females due to: A: Greater participation in physical activity B: Having more unipennate muscles C: Having a higher percentage of fast-twitch fibres D: Increased cross sectional area ANSWER: D: Increased cross sectional area

18. Anaerobic power is a measure of: A: The PC system’s ability to produce energy B: The LA system’s ability to produce power C: The ability of the anaerobic systems to provide energy via their pathways D: None of the above ANSWER: C: The ability of the anaerobic systems to provide energy via their pathways

19. The most important fitness component for a 1,500m swimmer performing a tumble turn is: A: Reaction Time B: Agility C: Balance D: Aerobic Power ANSWER: B: Agility

20. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to: A: Work out the important fitness components B: Consider the interplay of energy systems during the activity C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

21. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are: A: Reliable B: Valid C: Relevant D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

22. The most specific test to assess the agility of a tennis player would be the: A: Illinois Agility Run B: Semo Agility Test C: Harvard Twist Touch Test D: Margarita Agility Run ANSWER: B: Semo Agility Test

23. Males would be expected to score better on the vertical jump test than females because they: A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region B: Train more than females C: Possess greater ankle flexibility and can generate greater push off as a result of this D: Play more football than girls and this is an action specific to the game ANSWER: A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region

24. A training year can be broken down into smaller sections such as “pre-season”, “competition” and “off-season”. These are examples of” A: Periodisation B: Mesocycles C: Microcycles D: Tri-cycles ANSWER: A: Periodisation

25. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking aerobic training improvements is: A: 2 times / week B: 3 times / week C: 4-5 times / week D: 7 times / week ANSWER: C: 4-5 times / week

26. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates: A: The athlete needs to be thinking about “tapering” B: A period of adaptation C: A “steady State” has been achieved D: None of the above ANSWER: B: A period of adaptation

27. The best example of long interval training listed below is: A: 20 x 2 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1 B: 2 x 20 x 100 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:2 C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1 D: 2 x 20 x 10,000m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:10 ANSWER: C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1

28. “Fartlek” training : A: Can be overloaded by completing the same distance in a slower time B: Is also knows as “playing with speed” C: Requires rest periods to restore PC D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals ANSWER: D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals

29. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities: A: Skipping, max push ups in 60 seconds, running on the spot for 30 seconds (max intensity) B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding C: 10 x 20 m sprints every 45 seconds followed by 15 x 15m sprints every 30 seconds D: None of the above ANSWER: B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding

30. Plyometrics can be overloaded by: A: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity B: Decreasing the weight and increasing the repetitions C: Increasing the rest and decreasing the intensity D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity

31. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 4 represents: A: Repetitions B: Sets C: Resistance D: The day of the week training is undertaken ANSWER: B: Sets

32. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 12+ mths: A: Increased capillarisation B: Increased plasma volume C: Increased cardiac output D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

33. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in: A: Transporting more oxygen around the vascular system B: Preventing the myoglotic stretch reflex (less slow twitch muscle trains) C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria D: None of the above ANSWER: C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

34. Aerobic training results in decreases to the systolic blood pressure (except at max effort) due to: A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels B: Increasing LDL’s and reducing plaque build up on the inside of blood vessels C: Reciprocal increases in diastolic blood pressure D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels

35. Aerobic training has the following effect on ventilatory muscle oxygen consumption at the diaphragm & intercostals: A: Increases B: Decreases C: Remains relatively unchanged D: None of the above ANSWER: B: Decreases

36. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres: A: Increased “whiteness” B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores C: Increased contraction speed D: Increased triglyceride stores ANSWER: C: Increased contraction speed

37. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres: A: Increased aerobic force capacity B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores C: Increased contraction speed D: Increased triglyceride stores ANSWER: D: Increased triglyceride stores

38. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to lactic acid tolerance: A: Decreased reliance of glucose as a fuel B: Increased oxidative enzyme stores C: Decreased buffering ability D: Increased acid-base regulation ANSWER: D: Increased acid-base regulation

39. Training with high intensity/loads and low repetitions will generally result in greater changes in: A: Type IIB fibres B: Type IIA fibres C: Type I Fibres D: Type IA Fibres ANSWER: A: Type IIB fibres

40. Massage assists recovery by: A: Increasing blood flow to the massaged area(s) B: Increasing the amount of oxygen transported to the massaged area(s) C: Increasing the rate of waste removal fromthe massaged area(s) D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

41. The most effective way of monitoring training responses is to: A: Keep a training log B: Try to remember everything undertaken during a week of training C: “Listen” to what your body is saying to you by the way it feels D: None of the above ANSWER: A: Keep a training log

42. Risk management includes: A: Risk Identification B: Risk Reduction C: Risk Avoidance D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

43. Coaches might contribute to risks associated with the team they are training by: A: Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team B: Ensuring first aid kits are available at every training session C: Enlisting the support of non paid qualified staff D: All of the above ANSWER: D: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team

44. Risk management procedures extend beyond team management to facilities and equipment. The following must be taken into consideration in this area: A: Protective equipment and barriers B: Equipment care C: Hygiene D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

45. The following is a practical example of how AFL football teams try to prevent injuries A: Ensuring players participate in accredited courses so they’ll have a job when they finish playing B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries C: Using new pre-season training methods that have worked with in the USA for NFL footballers but haven’t been trialled here D: Players wearing helmets to avoid serious head injuries (similar to NFL footballers) ANSWER: B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries

46. The following strategy can assist enhancing performance by building or maintaining confidence: A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional B: “Walking the talk” C: Faking an injury to upset an opponent’s concentration D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional

47. The following drink allows quickest absorption and hydration: A: Hypotonic B: Hypertonic C: Hypatonic D: Hyputonic ANSWER: A: Hypotonic

48. Minerals are important in assisting performance PB’s by: A: Assisting in water loss to help with thermoregulation B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function C: Adding to the amount of ATP that can be produced D: Ensuring the Essential Electrolytic Balance (EEB) is maintained ANSWER: B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function

49. EPO is often taken by endurance athletes despite being banned by WADA. Side-effects include: A: Hyperactivity B: Hypotension C: Hypertension D: All of the above ANSWER: C: Hypertension

Malpeli Revision