CS0-003 exam dumps

1. CompTIA CS0-003 Exam CompTIA CyberSecurity Analyst CySA+ Certification Exam Questions & Answers (Demo Version - Limited Content) Thank you for Downloading CS0-003 exam PDF Demo Get Full File: https://www.dumpsvibe.com/CompTIA/CS0-003-dumps.html

2. Page 2 Questions & Answers PDF Version: 11.1 Question: 1 A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat? A. CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H Answer: A Explanation: This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official Reference: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss Question: 2 Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization? A. PAM B. IDS C. PKI D. DLP Answer: D Explanation: Data loss prevention (DLP) is a tool that can prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data in motion, in use, or at rest. Question: 3 www.Dumpsvibe.com

3. Page 3 Questions & Answers PDF An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed: Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share? A. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header Answer: B Explanation: The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame. Question: 4 Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.) www.Dumpsvibe.com

4. Page 4 Questions & Answers PDF A. Lessons learned B. Service-level agreement C. Playbook D. Affected hosts E. Risk score F. Education plan Answer: D, E Explanation: A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/ Question: 5 The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization? A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days B. A mean time to detect of 45 days C. A mean time to respond of 15 days D. Third-party application testing Answer: A Explanation: A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited Question: 6 A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script: www.Dumpsvibe.com

5. Page 5 Questions & Answers PDF Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script? A. PowerShel B. Ruby C. Python D. Shell script Answer: A Explanation: The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems. Question: 7 A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity? A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causinq port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80 C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80 D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers Answer: B Explanation: An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies network traffic between two parties. In this case, someone with internal access may be performing an on-path attack by forcing users into port 80, which is used for HTTP communication, instead of port 443, which is used for HTTPS communication. This would allow the attacker to compromise the user accounts and access the company’s internal portal. Question: 8 A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company www.Dumpsvibe.com

6. Page 6 Questions & Answers PDF security policies are shown below: Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management 1. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. 2. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data. 3. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system. According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch? A) B) C) D) A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: C Explanation: According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/ Question: 9 www.Dumpsvibe.com

7. Page 7 Questions & Answers PDF Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident? A. Business continuity plan B. Vulnerability management plan C. Disaster recovery plan D. Asset management plan Answer: C Explanation: Question: 10 The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk? A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement B. Configure MFA with strict access C. Deploy an API gateway D. Enable SSO to the cloud applications Answer: A Explanation: A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior. Question: 11 An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first? A. CDN B. Vulnerability scanner C. DNS D. Web server Answer: C Explanation: A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a www.Dumpsvibe.com

8. Page 8 Questions & Answers PDF target’s network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat- intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/ Question: 12 A malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering. The actor does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack. Which of the following best describes the current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor is currently operating in? A. Weaponization B. Reconnaissance C. Delivery D. Exploitation Answer: D Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain is a framework that describes the stages of a cyberattack from reconnaissance to actions on objectives. The exploitation stage is where attackers take advantage of the vulnerabilities they have discovered in previous stages to further infiltrate a target’s network and achieve their objectives. In this case, the malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering and does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack. This indicates that the actor is in the exploitation stage of the Cyber Kill Chain. Official Reference: https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-us/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill-chain.html Question: 13 An analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network that is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. Which of the following steps of an attack framework is the analyst witnessing? A. Exploitation B. Reconnaissance C. Command and control D. Actions on objectives Answer: B Explanation: Reconnaissance is the first stage in the Cyber Kill Chain and involves researching potential targets before carrying out any penetration testing. The reconnaissance stage may include identifying potential targets, finding their vulnerabilities, discovering which third parties are connected to them (and what data they can access), and exploring existing entry points as well as finding new ones. www.Dumpsvibe.com

9. Page 9 Questions & Answers PDF Reconnaissance can take place both online and offline. In this case, an analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing reconnaissance activity by an attacker. Official Reference: https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-us/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill- chain.html Question: 14 An incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. Which of the following best describes what is happening? (Choose two.) A. Beaconinq B. Domain Name System hijacking C. Social engineering attack D. On-path attack E. Obfuscated links F. Address Resolution Protocol poisoning Answer: C, E Explanation: A social engineering attack is a type of cyberattack that relies on manipulating human psychology rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities. A social engineering attack may involve deceiving, persuading, or coercing users into performing actions that benefit the attacker, such as clicking on malicious links, divulging sensitive information, or granting access to restricted resources. An obfuscated link is a link that has been disguised or altered to hide its true destination or purpose. Obfuscated links are often used by attackers to trick users into visiting malicious websites or downloading malware. In this case, an incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing a social engineering attack using obfuscated links. Question: 15 During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application. Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase? A. Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production B. Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked C. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CDflow D. Implement proper input validation for any data entry form Answer: C Explanation: www.Dumpsvibe.com

10. Page 10 Questions & Answers PDF Application security scanning is a process that involves testing and analyzing applications for security vulnerabilities, such as injection flaws, broken authentication, cross-site scripting, and insecure configuration. Application security scanning can help identify and fix security issues before they become exploitable by attackers. Using application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) flow can help mitigate the problem of finding the same vulnerabilities in a critical application during security scanning. This is because application security scanning can be integrated into the development lifecycle and performed automatically and frequently as part of the CI/CD process. Question: 16 An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a reboot resulting in a single downtime window. However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent? A. Proprietary systems B. Legacy systems C. Unsupported operating systems D. Lack of maintenance windows Answer: A Explanation: Proprietary systems are systems that are owned and controlled by a specific vendor or manufacturer, and that use proprietary standards or protocols that are not compatible with other systems. Proprietary systems can pose a challenge for vulnerability management, as they may not allow users to access or modify their configuration, update their software, or patch their vulnerabilities. In this case, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. This indicates that these systems and associated vulnerabilities are examples of proprietary systems as inhibitors to remediation Question: 17 The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan: www.Dumpsvibe.com

11. Page 11 Questions & Answers PDF Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan? A. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt B. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned C. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe D. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt Answer: D Explanation: A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user’s browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2. Question: 18 Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future? A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification Answer: B Explanation: One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat- intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/ Question: 19 A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis? A. Code analysis B. Static analysis www.Dumpsvibe.com

12. Page 12 Questions & Answers PDF C. Reverse engineering D. Fuzzing Answer: C Explanation: Reverse engineering is a technique that involves analyzing a binary file to understand its structure, functionality, and behavior. Reverse engineering can help security analysts perform malware analysis, vulnerability research, exploit development, and software debugging. Reverse engineering can be done using various tools, such as disassemblers, debuggers, decompilers, and hex editors. Question: 20 An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server? A. Hard disk B. Primary boot partition C. Malicious tiles D. Routing table E. Static IP address Answer: A Explanation: The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms. Question: 21 Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation? A. Suspicious file analysis: Look for suspicious-looking graphics in a folder. Create subfolders in the original folder based on category of graphics found. Move the suspicious graphics to the appropriate subfolder B. Firewall IoC block actions: Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the behavior found in the logs Follow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules C. Security application user errors: Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application www.Dumpsvibe.com

13. Page 13 Questions & Answers PDF Look up the user's phone number Call the user to help with any questions about using the application D. Email header analysis: Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five Add the domain of sender to the block list Move the email to quarantine Answer: D Explanation: Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics. Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules or thresholds Question: 22 An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to? A. PCI Security Standards Council B. Local law enforcement C. Federal law enforcement D. Card issuer Answer: D Explanation: Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official Reference: https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/ Question: 23 Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system? A. Mean time to detect B. Number of exploits by tactic C. Alert volume D. Quantity of intrusion attempts www.Dumpsvibe.com

14. Page 14 Questions & Answers PDF Answer: A Explanation: Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity- exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack Question: 24 A company is implementing a vulnerability management program and moving from an on-premises environment to a hybrid IaaS cloud environment. Which of the following implications should be considered on the new hybrid environment? A. The current scanners should be migrated to the cloud B. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners C. Existing vulnerability scanners cannot scan laaS systems D. Vulnerability scans on cloud environments should be performed from the cloud Answer: B Explanation: Cloud-specific misconfigurations are security issues that arise from improper or inadequate configuration of cloud resources, such as storage buckets, databases, virtual machines, or containers. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners that are designed for on-premises environments, as they may not have the visibility or access to the cloud resources or the cloud provider’s APIs. Therefore, one of the implications that should be considered on the new hybrid environment is that cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners. Question: 25 A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies? A. Create a timeline of events detailinq the date stamps, user account hostname and IP information associated with the activities B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Password protect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the investigation C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnel with access www.Dumpsvibe.com

15. Page 15 Questions & Answers PDF will not be able to easily identity the case as an HR-related investigation D. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity was intentional Answer: B Explanation: The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification. Question: 26 Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan? A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan B. Determine the site to be used during a disaster C Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process D. Identity applications to be run during a disaster Answer: A Explanation: The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable. Question: 27 A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process? A. Testing B. Implementation C. Validation D. Rollback Answer: C Explanation: The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the www.Dumpsvibe.com

16. Page 16 Questions & Answers PDF vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing. Question: 28 The analyst reviews the following endpoint log entry: Which of the following has occurred? A. Registry change B. Rename computer C. New account introduced D. Privilege escalation Answer: C Explanation: The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named “admin” has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of “Administrators”. This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system. Question: 29 A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of the following best describes what the security program did? A. Data enrichment B. Security control plane C. Threat feed combination D. Single pane of glass Answer: D Explanation: A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple www.Dumpsvibe.com

17. Page 17 Questions & Answers PDF tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps- cyberattack Question: 30 Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output: www.Dumpsvibe.com

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19. Page 19 Questions & Answers PDF Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first? A. wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152) B. lan (192.168.86.22) C. imaging.lan (192.168.86.150) D. xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249) E. p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) Answer: E Explanation: The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the-middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network. Official Reference: https://github.com/mame82/P4wnP1_aloa www.Dumpsvibe.com

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