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a. 1; 280 million b. 8; 2 billion c. 2; 1 million d. 4; 1 billion

There are ~280 million Hb molecules in one RBC. A single Hb molecule carries ___ molecule(s) of O 2 , which means that a single RBC carries about ___ O 2 molecules. a. 1; 280 million b. 8; 2 billion c. 2; 1 million d. 4; 1 billion.

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a. 1; 280 million b. 8; 2 billion c. 2; 1 million d. 4; 1 billion

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  1. There are ~280 million Hb molecules in one RBC. A single Hb molecule carries ___ molecule(s) of O2, which means that a single RBC carries about ___ O2 molecules. • a. 1; 280 million • b. 8; 2 billion • c. 2; 1 million • d. 4; 1 billion

  2. All of the following EXCEPT ___ lead to a decrease in hematocrit. • a. dehydration • b. hemorrhage • c. problems with RBC formation • d. anemia

  3. Why is it important that when iron binds to oxygen that this is a temporary and reversible interaction? • because the hemoglobin can then be fully saturated • because the oxygen needs to dissociate into tissues • because RBCs consume some of the oxygen they carry • because carbon dioxide binds to the iron • molecule simultaneously

  4. What accounts for males’ HCT (~46) being higher than females’ HCT (~42)? • a. Males are larger than females. • b. Females’ RBCs are smaller than males’ RBCs. • c. Androgens stimulate RBC production. • d. Estrogens break down RBCs at a faster rate than they are produced.

  5. Under normal conditions, what is the fate of the globular proteins of a recycled hemoglobin molecule? • a. They are filtered by the kidneys and eliminated in urine. • b. They are disassembled into their component amino acids. • c. They are stripped of their heme unit and converted into biliverdin. • d. They are converted to bilirubin and excreted in bile.

  6. All of the following EXCEPT ___ are characteristics of all types of WBCs. • can leave capillaries by diapedesis • are capable of amoeboid movement • are phagocytic • are attracted to specific chemical stimuli

  7. What is the nature of and purpose of surface antigens on RBCs? • glycoproteins in the cytoplasm; substances that your body recognizes as foreign • receptor proteins; they aid the entry of oxygen to RBCs • peripheral proteins; they trigger an immune response • integral membrane glycoproteins or glycolipids; substances your immune system recognizes as “normal”

  8. Which type of WBC is found in greatest numbers in an infected cut? • a. monocytes • b. neutrophils • c. B lymphocytes • d. eosinophils

  9. Monocytes transform into ____ in tissues, where they ____. • basophils; exacerbate inflammation • plasma cells; synthesize and release antibodies • macrophages; are phagocytic and release chemicals that attract neutrophils • natural killer cells; detect and destroy abnormal tissue cells

  10. Sam has an infestation of large parasitic worms. Which of the following will happen? a. Eosinophils will release cytotoxic enzymes from their granules. b. Lymphocytes will engulf the worms by phagocytosis. c. Basophils will release histamine. d. All types of WBCs will be damaged by the parasites, causing leukopenia.

  11. If Derek has surface antigen B and D on his RBCs, what blood type does he have? What type of antibodies are in his plasma? • a. B+; anti-A antibodies • b. B–; anti-D antibodies • c. B+; anti-B antibodies • d. B–; anti-A antibodies

  12. Andrew has blood type O negative. What type of blood can he receive from a donor? Why? • O negative or positive; he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma. • A, B, or O; he has no surface antigens on his RBCs. • O negative; he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma. • None of the above is correct.

  13. Why can’t a person with Type A blood safely receive blood from a person with Type B blood? • Mixing blood types causes infections in the recipient. • The anti-A antibodies in Type A’s plasma would react with Type B’s donated blood. • Type B blood would agglutinate in the recipient’s blood vessels and plug small vessels to vital organs. • All of the above are correct.

  14. Why is it unlikely that the antibodies in the plasma of a Type O donor would cause a transfusion reaction in a Type A recipient? • Surface antigens on RBCs are more important in determining compatibility. • The plasma portion of donated blood is tiny when compared to the volume of plasma in the recipient’s body. • Plasma is not transfused in blood donations. • O blood doesn’t have any antibodies in its plasma.

  15. Why is cross-matching performed, even though both donor and recipient are known to be the same blood type? • a. It reveals the presence of potential cross-reactions with surface antigens other than A, B, and Rh. • b. It ensures that neither donor nor recipient is anemic. • c. It confirms the HIV status of the donor. • d. It ensures that the donor does not have WBCs outside the normal range.

  16. Which of the phases of hemostasis occurs first? • a. platelet phase • b. vascular phase • c. fibrinolysis phase • d. coagulation phase

  17. Cirrhosis is a consequence of chronic liver disease where the tissue becomes fibrotic. How could this disease impact the blood? a. It can cause a decrease in the ability of blood to clot due to decreased production of fibrinogen. b. It can decrease the production of immunoglobulins and decrease the ability to fight infection. c. It can decrease the osmotic pressure of the blood. d. It can impact all of the above.

  18. Which of the following is NOT true of platelets? a. They are packets of cytoplasm produced from megakaryocytes. b. They release chemicals important to clotting. c. Their formation is stimulated by thrombopoietin. d. They are derived from lymphoid stem cells.

  19. Following surgery for stomach cancer, Joe has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem? • He may not be absorbing vitamin B12 from his diet since the operation because of less intrinsic factor. • He has iron deficiency anemia because of his cancer. • He is producing too much intrinsic factor following surgery. • All of the above are correct.

  20. Which condition below would stimulate the release of erythropoietin (EPO)? a. hypoxia produced by high altitude b. kidney disease c. low blood pressure due to internal bleeding d. all of the above

  21. In which organ are most plasma proteins synthesized? • a. spleen • b. bone marrow • c. kidneys • d. liver

  22. All of the following EXCEPT ____ is a major function of blood. a. transport of dissolved gases, nutrients, and hormones b. stabilization of body temperature c. storage for calcium ions d. defense against toxins and pathogens

  23. Why is venipuncture a common technique for obtaining a blood sample? a. Blood pressure is relatively low in veins. b. Superficial veins are easy to locate. c. Venous walls are thinner than arterial walls. d. All of the above are correct.

  24. What is the primary difference between plasma and interstitial fluid? a. Plasma contains significantly more protein. b. Interstitial fluid contains no respiratory gases. c. The concentration of ions is significantly less in plasma. d. Interstitial fluid contributes very little to the volume of ECF in the body.

  25. Which characteristics of blood contribute to its high viscosity? • its temperature is slightly above body temperature • interactions among proteins, formed elements, and water molecules in plasma • its alkalinity • the percentage of body weight it comprises

  26. What contributions from the Extrinsic and Intrinsic Pathways help form the enzyme complex necessary to begin the Common Pathway? • Factors VIII and IX from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factor VII from the Intrinsic Pathway • Factor III from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factor XII from the Intrinsic Pathway • Factor VII from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factors VIII and IX from the Intrinsic Pathway • none of the above

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