APES Review

1. APES Review

2. 1. Justification that sees some aspect of the environment as valuable because it provides individuals with economic benefits: a) utilitarian b) ecological c) moral d) aesthetic e) economical

3. 2. The example of the John Eli Miller Family illustrates which of the following themes: a) global warming b) sustainability c) human population expansion d) a global perspective e) urbanization

4. 3. What is meant by the “population bomb”? a) nuclear weapons used on urban centers b) an uncontrolled increase in human population c) the number of individuals per unit area d) a graphical representation of growing population e) an international plan to control the ever growing number of people living on Earth

5. 4. When did the most dramatic increase in the history of the human population occur? a) in the early history of the human population b) in the last part of the twentieth century c) during the industrial revolution d) during the middle ages e) human population has increased on a steady rate

6. 5. It is said that population crises become worse the larger the population. This worsening is the result of: a) an open system b) a closed system c) negative feedback d) positive feedback e) the need to help Third World countries

7. 6. Which of the following is not a major theme of environmental science: a) human population growth b) an urbanizing world c) sustainability of our population and all of nature d) science and values e) all of the above are major themes of environmental science

8. 7. “Carrying capacity” refers to: a) the maximum weight that can be put on a vehicle or machine b) the nutrient value of a food source c) the amount of a mineral resource that can be recovered economically from a mine d) the average life-expectancy of an individual in a population e) the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by an ecosystem

9. 8. The total effect of humans upon the environment is: a) the product of the average impact per individual times the total number of individuals b) the product of the population and the total number of births c) the total number of births per individual d) the total number of individuals e) not predictable

10. 9. The population density of the first farmers was much higher than the density of hunters and gatherers because: a) of stable shelters b) mortality of farmers is less than that of hunters and gatherers c) more food was available d) of a lowered death rate e) population has grown according to the J-curve from the beginning of human history

11. 10. The rapid population increase since the Industrial Revolution occurred for all of the following reasons except: a) invention of vaccines b) advances in agriculture c) increased food production d) lower infant mortality e) declining birth rates

12. 11. Aspects and limitation(s) of the early approach to environmental issues included: a) a lack of scientific knowledge b) a general recognition that real solutions to environmental problems include and depend on human beings c) recognition that we must seek sustainability in the environment and our economic activities d) a lack of understanding that environmentalism and economic progress are not contradictory e) all of the above

13. 12. What is the carrying capacity of the Earth for humans? a) zero b) under 1 billion c) just over 5 billion d) between 10 and 20 billion e) any estimate depends on who you ask and what assumptions they make

14. 13. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps, from beginning to end, in the Scientific Method: a) hypothesis –> controlled experiment –> inferences –> conclusions b) conclusions –> controlled experiment –> observations –> hypothesis c) controlled experiment –> inferences –> deductive proof –> hypothesis d) observations –> hypothesis –> controlled experiment –> conclusions e) conclusions –> observations –> alter observations to fit conclusions –> future research grants and awards

15. 14. A scientist is testing the factors that lead to the growth of larger tomatoes. In one particular series of experiments, she holds the moisture and the amount of fertilizer constant, but varies the soil type and measures the resulting changes in tomato weight. Which of the following is the independent variable in these experiments: a) moisture b) amount of fertilizer c) tomato weight d) amount of sunlight e) soil type

16. 15. Deductive proof: a) is speculative b) is based on hypotheses c) is probabilistic d) is absolute e) produces new knowledge

17. 16. Models that offer very broad, fundamental explanations of many observations are called: a) hypotheses b) data c) theories d) methods e) fringe science

18. 17. Science and technology are often confused with each other. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding science and technology? a) science cannot be advanced without technology b) technology is the application of scientific knowledge c) science is limited by the technology available d) science leads to new technological advances e) science is the search for understanding the natural world

19. 18. A scientist wishes to test the effects of different amounts of water and fertilizer on yields of corn. In a series of test fields, she varies the supply of water and the amount of fertilizer applied to a given strain of corn and measures the weight of the crop that results. In this experiment, which is/are the dependent variable(s)? a) corn yield and variety of corn strain b) water supply and supply of fertilizer c) corn yield d) water supply and effect of climate e) supply of fertilizer and variety of corn strain

20. 19. Which of the following statements is not true about assumptions of science? a) events in the natural world follow patterns b) science is based on a type of reasoning known as induction c) basic processes and laws are not the same throughout the universe d) generalizations can be subjected to tests that disprove them e) science can provide absolute proof of the truth of its theories

21. 20. In the ancient civilizations of Babylon and Egypt, observations of the environment were carried out for all of the following purposes except: a) planting crops b) religious reasons c) predicting human events d) to understand the fundamental laws of the universe e) for navigation of ships

22. 21. The growth rate at which the amount doubles in a fixed unit of time is called a) linear growth b) negative feedback c) exponential growth d) positive feedback e) equilibrium

23. 22. Change that tends to stabilize a system is called a) linear growth b) negative feedback c) exponential growth d) positive feedback e) equilibrium

24. 23. Simply stated, the principle of environmental unity states that: a) humans have only one environment b) resources are finite c) time is money d) the environment is a closed system e) everything affects everything else

25. 24. Considering inputs to a pool and outputs from it, the pool will be in steady state when: a) inputs exceed outputs b) outputs cease c) inputs equal outputs d) outputs exceed inputs e) inputs cease

26. 25. The figure on the right describes: a) negative feedback b) biofeedback c) an open system d) dynamic expansion e) exponential growth

27. 26. Philosophy 101 had 50 students on the first day of class. However, the class has a reputation for being an easy A (unlike the class you’re taking now), and the enrollment is unlimited. The number of students has increased at an average rate of 5% per class day. What is the doubling time of the enrollment in the class? a) 2 weeks b) about 6 weeks c) 14 class days d) 20 class days e) 14 years

28. 27. The region of the Earth where life exists is known as: a) the biota b) the crust c) the biosphere d) the biozone e) Gaia

29. 28. Why did Amboseli National Park suffer a serious loss of the woodland habitat? a) changes in rainfall and soil b) overgrazing of cattle by the Masai people c) damage to the trees by elephants d) damage to the woodlands by wildebeest and zebras e) all of the above

30. 29. The Gaia hypothesis proposes that: I. the global environment at a global level has been profoundly changed since life appeared on Earth II. life is sacred, and eating meat or animal by-products is immoral III. changes in the environment tend to improve the environment for life a) I only b) II only c) I and II d) I and III e) I, II, and III

31. 30. Which of the following are associated with natural systems that have long residence times (for example, underground aquifers)? a) throughput is greater than pool size b) difficulty in flushing out pollutants once they are introduced c) the system is quickly polluted and quickly cleaned d) the system is quickly polluted but slowly cleaned e) short regeneration times following periods of greater output than input

32. 31. A type of feedback mechanism functions as a _______________ process for the system as a whole. a) negative; destabilizing b) negative; stabilizing or self-regulating c) equilibrium; stabilizing d) positive; stabilizing or self-regulating e) positive; cleansing

33. 32. Positive feedback: a) tends to be self-regulating b) works in the opposite direction of perturbations c) trends towards an equilibrium d) accelerates change e) is rarely beneficial

34. 33. Systems can be regarded as either open or closed. Using the example of a small life-raft in the Pacific Ocean: a) wind in the sails is an open system; cans: of food are a closed system b) wind in the sails is a closed system; cans: of food are an open system c) both are closed systems d) both are open systems e) a life-raft cannot be considered in terms of systems

35. 34. A hypothetical strain of bacteria doubles every two minutes (exponential growth). One single bacterium was put in a sealed bottle at 8:00 AM, and the bottle was filled at exactly 10:00 AM. What time was the bottle half full? a) 9:00 AM b) 9:30 AM c) 9:47 AM d) 9:58 AM e) time depends on the size of the bottle

36. 35. Uniformitarianism is: a) the principle that everything affects everything else b) a New England religion, the first to become active in environmentalism c) the principle that the past can be understood by studying the processes operating at present d) the belief that the Earth functions as a single living organism e) the principle that differences within the environment are small relative to the overall similarities

37. 36. The herd of caribou on Edwardan Island was measured in 1959. At that time, there were 20 animals, and the herd was growing at a steady rate of 14% annually. What was the doubling time of the herd? a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 7 years d) 14 years e) 28 years

38. 37. A system with a greater input than output would experience: a) an increase in storage b) a decrease in storage c) no change in storage d) zero storage e) compound interest

39. 38. Which of the following examples describes the S-shaped curve according to which a population grows rapidly but eventually reaches a constant population? a) demographic transition b) replacement fertility curve c) logistic growth curve d) sustainability e) carrying capacity

40. 39. Which of the following examples describes the movement of a nation from a high population growth to a low population growth? a) demographic transition b) replacement fertility curve c) logistic growth curve d) sustainability e) carrying capacity

41. The figure on the right illustrates which of the following concepts? a) replacement level fertility b) population age structure c) low death rates d) Malthus’ theory of human population e) logistic population growth

42. 41. According to the concept of the “demographic transition,” a population will go through a period of expansion, but later stabilize at: a) its original number b) at the maximum carrying capacity of the land c) at a population larger than before the transition, but with zero growth d) a constant rate of growth e) a level where deaths caused by famine and disease equal new births

43. 42. The doubling time of a population: a) is two-thirds of the tripling time b) is a function of exponential growth c) is based on a constant birth rate d) Growth rate =(# of births) – (# of deaths per unit time) / (total population) e) refers to demographic fertility

44. 43. Decreased death rate and the accelerated rate of human population growth are related to: I. improved sanitation and health II. increased food supply III. control of disease-spreading organisms a) I only b) II only c) III only d) I and II e) I, II and III

45. 44. The “demographic transition” refers to: a) declining population growth rate following rapid growth b) democratic mandates for contraceptives to control human population growth c) the maximum human population sustainable by the Earth d) the transition from population growth to population decline e) overpopulation in less developed countries

46. 45. Human population growth during the pre-industrial agricultural period and during the Industrial Revolution period occurred with little change in: a) birth rates b) death rates c) growth rates d) maximum human life expectancy e) average life expectancy

47. 46. In a developing country, chronic diseases account for a _________ proportion of total mortality. Acute diseases account for a _________ proportion of total mortality. a) large; small b) small; large c) large; large d) small; small e) in developing countries, population is controlled by food supply, not disease

48. 47. Rapid human population growth puts an especially heavy burden on: a) the environment b) the wildlife c) sewage treatment plants d) the ocean e) rapid human population growth burdens all of the above

49. 48. Human demography suggests that an improving economy in a country correlates with: a) decreased birth rate, increased population growth rate b) decreased death rate, increased population growth rate c) decreased birth rate, decreased population growth rate d) increased birth rate, decreased population growth rate e) increased birth rate, increased population growth rate

50. 49. Which of the following gives an example of an acute and a chronic disease: a) measles and cholera b) influenza and heart disease c) stroke and measles d) cancer and stroke e) plague and tooth decay