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Pharm LGT

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Pharm LGT

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  1. Pharm LGT Robin Dore rdore@live.unthsc.edu Leigh Anne Russell lerussel@live.unthsc.edu

  2. 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs: • -cidal drugs inhibit bacterial growth • -static drugs destroy/ kill bacteria • -cidal and –static drugs should never be used together*** • -cidal and –static drugs are synergistic when used together

  3. 2. The mechanism of action of SMX-TMP is • Inhibits the last step in bacterial cell wall synthesis • Inhibits folic acid synthesis*** • Inhibits DNA gyrase • Inhibits protein synthesis

  4. 3. The drug of choice for chlamydial infections in pregnancy is: • Penicillin • Ciprofloxacin • Clindamycin • Erythromcyin***

  5. 4. When 2 drugs used together produce a greater effect than either drug alone, this describes: • Antagonism • Synergism*** • Additive • Subtractive

  6. 5. All of the following are 1st line medications to treat TB, except: • Ceftriaxone*** • Isoniazid (INH) • Rifampin • Ethambutol

  7. 6. Cephalosporins work by: • Inhibiting protein synthesis • Inhibiting the last step in bacterial cell wall synthesis*** • Forming cytotoxic compounds that damage proteins and DNA • Inhibiting HIV-1 reverse transcriptase

  8. 7. The most common side effect of amoxicillin is: • GI upset • “Red man syndrome” • Hypersensitivity reaction (allergy)*** • Discoloration of body fluids

  9. 8. The lowest concentration of antibiotic that will inhibit the growth of an organism is: • Minimum Bacteriocidal Concentration (MBC) • Minimum Lethal Concentration (MLC) • Therapeutic Index (TI) • Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)***

  10. 9. This 3rd generation cephalosporin is the drug of choice for N. gonorrhea: • Ampicillin • Ceftriaxone*** • Metronidazole • Cephalexin

  11. 10. A 23 year old male comes into the ED on a Saturday night c/o headache and vomiting for the past 3 hours. He states that he was out drinking with his friends when this started. Upon further questioning, he admits to taking some kind of medication for a URI. Which one of the following medications could be causing his symptoms? • Metronidazole*** • Ciprofloxacin • Azithromycin • Penicillin

  12. 11. An 8 year old female presents with fever, nausea, body aches, and chills of 2 days duration. You suspect the child has H1N1. Which of the following medications would be appropriate to start in this patient? • SMX-TMP • Acyclovir • Doxycycline • Oseltamivir***

  13. 12. An HIV-positive patient presents with signs and symptoms of fungal meningitis. Which medication should this patient receive? • Amphotericin B*** • Rifampin • Vancomycin • Fluconazole

  14. 13. 1st line treatment of HIV includes: • NRTI + NNRTI + PI • 2 NRTI + NNRTI • PI only • 2 NRTI + PI***

  15. 14. A patient is planning a trip to Africa, which of the following medications should you prescribe? • Mebendezole • Chloroquine*** • Metronidazole • Cefuroxime

  16. 15. Griseofulvin is an antifungal that is prescribed ______ for _____ • Topically, ringworm • Orally, ringworm*** • Topically, athlete’s foot • Vaginally, candidiasis

  17. 16. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid= • Augmentin*** • Penicillin • Azithromycin • Doxycyline

  18. 18. Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, Streptomycin) are: • -cidal*** • -static • Both –cidal and –static • None the above

  19. 19. Which of the following is a fusion inhibitor used to treat HIV? • Zidovudine (AZT) • Acyclovir • Enfuvirtide*** • Amantadine

  20. 20. You prescribe Rifampin to treat a patient with TB. Why is it important to tell this patient to remove his contact lenses while taking this medication? • It causes ototoxicity. • It causes blue-green color vision. • It causes diarrhea. • It causes orange-colored body secretions, which can stain his contact lenses***

  21. 21. This class of medications should not be used in children because it causes staining of the teeth and bones: • Penicillins • Cephalosporins • Tetracyclines*** • Fluoroquinolones (cartilage erosion)

  22. 22. You diagnose a patient with vaginal candidiasis (yeast infection). Which of the following medications should you prescribe? • Nystatin • Fluconazole*** • SMX-TMP • Griseofulvin

  23. 23. Interferon is used to treat: • Hepatitis*** • Influenza • TB • Herpes

  24. 24. The mechanism of action of metronidazole: • Protein synthesis inhibition • Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis • Inhibition of mycolic acid formation • Forms cytotoxic compounds that damage DNA***

  25. 25. Mebendazole is always given: • Orally*** • Rectally • IV • Topically

  26. 26. Acetazolamide can be used for which of the following: • Metabolic Acidosis • Acidification of Urine • High Altitude Mountain Sickness*** • Macular Degeneration

  27. 27. Which of the following drugs is an osmotic diuretic used to decrease intracranial pressure in acute head injury patients? • Chlothalidone • Eplerenone • Torsemide • Mannitol***

  28. 28. A patient with stage III HF presents to the ER with crackles heard on ausculation and lower extremity peripheral edema. Which of the following drugs inhibits the Na, K, 2Cl symporter & may be clinically indicated for this patient? • Eplerenone • Chlorothalazide • Furosemide*** • Amiloride

  29. 29. Which one of the following diuretics is a first line agent on treating hypertension? • Mannitol • Eplerenone • Acetozolamide • Hydrochlorothiazide***

  30. 30. Loop Diuretics ---- Ca ----, whereas Thiazides ---- Ca ----. • increase, reabsorption, increase excretion • increase, excretion, increase reabsorption*** • decrease, excretion, decrease, reabsorption • No effect on Ca

  31. 31. The site of action of potassium sparing diuretics is: a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Thick ascending loop of henle c) Distal convoluted tubule d) Cortical collecting duct***

  32. 32. A patient taking a potassium sparing diuretic is most at risk for which electrolyte imbalance: • Hypokalemia • Hyperkalemia*** • Hypochloremia • Hypermagnesium

  33. 33. Which of the following is a side effect of potassium sparing diuretics? • Hypokalemia • Increased libido • Gynecomastia*** • Increased sperm count

  34. 34. The mechanism of action of triamterene is: • Drive K & H ions out of the lumen • Agonists of epithelial Na channel • Antagonists of epithelial Na channel*** d) Inhibition of Na reabsorption in the distal tubule

  35. 35. Eplerenone has been approved for the following use: • Treatment of Nephrolithiasis • Treatment of Hyperkalemia • Treatment of Post-MI CHF*** • Treatment of Gynecomastia

  36. 36. Vasopressin Antagonists are used clinically to treat: • Central diabetes insipidus • Hypernatremia • Syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone*** • Diabetes mellitus

  37. 37. Which of the following is the recommended route of administration for desmopressin in the treatment of central diabetes insipidus? • Oral • Intravenous • Sublingual • Intranasal***

  38. 38. A side effect of antimuscarinics is: • Excessive salivation • Constipation*** • Frequent urination • Gynecomastia

  39. 39. A 73-year-old woman complains of progressive urinary incontinence, which she describes as an intense feeling of urgency that cannot be delayed, accompanied by urinary leakage. Which of the following is the recommended treatment? • α-Blocking agent • Topical estrogen cream • Detrusor relaxant medication*** • Surgical intervention

  40. 40. Which one of the following anticholinergics used to treat overactive bladder is selective for the M3 receptor? • Oxybutynin • Tolterodine • Darifenacin*** • Solifenacin

  41. 41. A major side effect of alpha1 selective antagonists is: • Postural hypotension*** • Nasal rhinorrhea • Urinary frequency • Enlarged prostate

  42. 42. Patients taking finasteride should be given the following instructions: • This drug may cause teratogenic effects to a fetus*** • Do not donate blood for 3 months after taking the last dose. • This medication may increase libido. • This medication may cause hair loss in men.

  43. 43. Which of the following statements is true? • Alpha blockers increase smooth muscle tone in both the prostate and the bladder sphincter. • Alpha blockers have a faster onset of action and a greater efficacy than 5 αreductase inhibitors*** • 5 αreductase inhibitors do not require a serum prostate specific antigen concentration determined before treatment. • 5 αreductase inhibitors increase DHT synthesis.

  44. 44. A common OTC therapy for prostatism is: • Vitamin C • Saw Palmetto*** • Garlic • Acai Berry

  45. 45. The most frequent side effect of saw palmetto is: • Increased libido • Gynecomastia • Erectile dysfunction*** • Nocturia

  46. 46. Common medications that aggravate the irritative symptoms of BPH are: • Adrenergic agonists*** • H2 receptor agonists • Acetylcholine • Alpha Antagonists

  47. 47. Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of bethanechol? • Epilepsy • Bradycardia • Asthma • Post-Op Urinary Retention***

  48. 48. PDE Inhibitors are used to treat which one of the following disorders? • Urinary retention • Urinary incontinence • Erectile dysfunction*** • Priapism

  49. 49. Which of the following PDE Inhibitors has the longest half life? • Vardenafil • Sildenafil • Tadalafil*** • The half life of these drugs are equivalent.

  50. 50. The most commonly used drug for the treatment of female sexual dysfunction is: • Estrogen • Premarin • Testosterone*** • Sildenafil