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Malpeli Revision

Malpeli Revision. 200 - 299. 200. A way of reducing future risks and injuries occurring in sports is: A Using the SIPP strategy (Sports Injury Prevention Program) B Adopting injury surveillance systems C Focussing more on skill development D All of the above. ANSWER:

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Malpeli Revision

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  1. Malpeli Revision 200 - 299

  2. 200. A way of reducing future risks and injuries occurring in sports is: A Using the SIPP strategy (Sports Injury Prevention Program) B Adopting injury surveillance systems C Focussing more on skill development D All of the above ANSWER: B Adopting injury surveillance systems

  3. 201. School settings-based programs for promoting physical activity are superior to workplace and community settings because they: A: Use a combination of social influences B: Have a captive audience – i.e. schooling is compulsory until 15 years of age C: Can incorporate policy into any promotion strategies D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  4. 202. Aerobic glycolysis: A: Would be very important to a 200m runner B: Resynthesizes ATP quicker than anaerobic glycolysis C: Switches to fats when carbohydrates are running low D: Doesn’t result in harmful by-products ANSWER: D: Doesn’t result in harmful by-products

  5. 203. The following is an example of an objective measure of physical activity: A: A GPS unit B: Direct observation C: A Physical Activity Diary D:None of the above ANSWER: A. A GPS unit

  6. 204. An athlete with low levels of fitness will experience proportionately greater gains in fitness than an athlete who is fitter can be explained by: A: The law of proportional returns B: The law of inverse proportionality C: The law of diminishing returns D: The law of proportional return ANSWER: C: The law of diminishing returns

  7. 205. Stage 6 of the “Stages of Change” model is known as the Termination stage which: A: Sees performers meet the NPAG guidelines for a minimum of 24 months B: Sees performers being physically active most nights of the week C: Sees performers reduce the amount of physical activity to maintain fitness gains D: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years ANSWER: D: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years

  8. 206. The following is an example of a “constructed environment” A: A walking track around a school oval B: A playground C: A skate bowl and ramp D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  9. 207. The following would occur after 12 months of plyometrics training: A: Increased glycolytic capacity B: Increased muscle buffering ability C: Increased energy substrate stores D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  10. 208. Biofeedback is used to enhance performance by: A: Promoting improved focus B: Reducing arousal C: Increasing arousal D: Creating life-like images ANSWER: B: Reducing arousal

  11. 209. Creatine supplementation: A: Increases the rate of PC resynthesis B: Increases the rate of PC splitting C: Increases phosphorylation D: Results is osmotic efflux at the muscles ANSWER: A: Increases the rate of PC resynthesis

  12. 210. At sub-maximal intensity, most of our energy comes from: A: Glucose B: Carbohydrates C: Adipose D: None of the above ANSWER: A: Glucose

  13. 211. The ATP-PC system: A: Produces more ATP than the aerobic energy system B: Has a greater yield of ATP than the LA system C: Produces ATP at a slower rate than the glycoltyic system D: None of the above ANSWER: D: None of the above

  14. 212. The energy system interplay is best described when: A: All three systems work in a sequential manner B: ATP is interdependent of ADP release C: Oxygen supply can meet oxygen demand D: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems ANSWER: D: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems

  15. 213. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs : A: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis B: LIP balances with BLA C: Ventilation decreases D: None of the above ANSWER: A : Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

  16. 214. Steady state occurs when: A: Oxygen deficit is greater than oxygen debt B: Oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply C: Oxygen consumption equal carbon dioxide production D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand ANSWER: D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

  17. 215. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 400m sprinter (athletics) is: A: H+ accumulation B: Pi+ accumulation C: Na+ accumulation D: None of the above ANSWER: A: H+ accumulation

  18. 216. Following a 10 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period? A: 1 minute B: 2 minutes C: 3 minutes D: 4 minutes ANSWER: C: 3 minutes

  19. 217. Protein is mainly used for: A: ATP resynthesis B: Repair of hair follicles C: Athletes who have depleted their PC stores D: Muscle growth and repair ANSWER: D: Muscle growth and repair

  20. 218. Anaerobic capacity is a measure of: A: How much glycogen is used in the Kreb’s cycle B: The infinite amount of energy the lactic acid system can produce C: The finite amount of energy the anaerobic systems can provide D: None of the above ANSWER: C: The finite amount of energy the anaerobic systems can provide

  21. 219. The most important fitness component for a 1,500m swimmer is: A: Flexibility B: Local Muscular Endurance C: Speed D: Power ANSWER: B: Local Muscular Endurance

  22. 220. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to: A: Determine which components of fitness are important B: Identify areas for improvement C: Design a series of fitness tests to be undertaken D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  23. 221. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are: A: Norm referenced B: Valid C: Activity specific D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  24. 222. The most specific test to assess the agility of a pole vaulter would be the: A: The Semo agility tests B: Bend Twist Touch test C: The Illinois agility test D: The shoulder hyperextension test ANSWER: B: Bend Twist Touch test

  25. 223. Males would be expected to score better in beep test than females because they: A: Have bigger hearts B: Have higher lung capacities C: Have more blood D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  26. 224. A training year can be broken down into smaller sections such as “pre-season”, “competition” and “off-season”. These are examples of” A: Periodisation B: Privatisation C: Localisation D: None of the above ANSWER: A: Periodisation

  27. 225. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking aerobic training improvements is: A: 4-5 times / week B: 3-4 times / week C: 2-3 times / week D: 1-2 times / week ANSWER: A: 4-5 times / week

  28. 226. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates: A: Steady state B: A period of adaptation C: Overtraining D: Specificity ANSWER: B: A period of adaptation

  29. 227. The modified pull up tests is useful to measure : A: Alactacid power B: Strength C: Local muscular endurance D: Power ANSWER: C: Local muscular endurance

  30. 228. “Fartlek” training : A: Was named after the Swedish cross country champion Sven Far Tlek B: Trains both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems C: Has a work to rest ratio larger than long interval training D: None of the above ANSWER: B: Trains both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems

  31. 229. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities: A: Dodges, weaves and directional changes B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding C: Maximal contractions applied over a period of time D: All of the above ANSWER: B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding

  32. 230. Plyometrics can be overloaded by: A: Increasing the height and depth of jumps B: Increasing the number of repetitions performed C: Jumping whilst wearing a back pack filled with 5kg sand D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  33. 231. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 80 represents: A: The weight of the performer B: The resistance C: The overload D: The replication ANSWER: B: The resistance

  34. 232. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 12+ mths: A: Increased anabolic enzymes B: Increased catabolic processes C: Increased catalytic enzymes D: None of the above ANSWER: D: None of the above

  35. 233. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in: A: Moving more oxygen away from the intercostals to working muscles B: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria C: Moving more carbon dioxide from the right ventricle to the lungs D: Moving arteriovenous oxygenated blood back to the alveoli ANSWER: B: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

  36. 234. Shin splints are an example of: A: Overtraining B: Overloading C: Overcompensating D: Overarching principles ANSWER: A: Overtraining

  37. 235. Aerobic training has the following effect on muscle oxygen delivery: A: Decreases B: Increases C: Absorbs more D: None of the above ANSWER: B: Increases

  38. 236. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres: A: Increased FFA stores B: Increased capillarisation C: Increased glycolytic enzymes D: Increased oxidative enzymes ANSWER: C: Increased glycolytic enzymes

  39. 237. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres: A: Increased nervous transmission B: Increased contraction speed C: Increased PC stores D: Increased capillarisation ANSWER: D: Increased capillarisation

  40. 238. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to the LIP: A: Regulate B: Remain the same C: Decrease D: Increase ANSWER: D: Increase

  41. 239. Training with high intensity/loads and low repetitions will generally result in greater changes in: A: Fast twitch fibres B: Slow twitch fibres C: Medium twitch fibres D: None of the above ANSWER: A: Fast twitch fibres

  42. 240. Massage assists recovery by: A: Increasing blood flow B: Preventing venous pooling C: Facilitating removal of metabolic by-products D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  43. 241. The most effective way of monitoring training responses is to: A: Listen carefully to your personal trainer B: Conduct post tests C: Video your training D: Keep a training log ANSWER: D: Keep a training log

  44. 242. The following is a strategy that can be used for 1:1 counselling: A: Contracting B: Identifying opportunities to be active C: Enlisting social support D: All of the above ANSWER: D: All of the above

  45. 243. Groups most at risk of being physically inactive include: A: White collar workers B: Racial and ethnic minorities C: High SES groups D: All of the above ANSWER: B : Racial and ethnic minorities

  46. 244. Relapse is most likely to occur at the following stage: A: Action B: Precontemplation C: Termination D: Preparation ANSWER: D: Preparation

  47. 245 Someone suffering from pre-game “jitters” should use the following strategy to get to a better psychological state. A: Progressive muscle relocation B: Elevated breathing rate C: Energising muscle contractions D: All of the above ANSWER: A : Progressive muscle relocation

  48. 246. Caffeine is often taken by endurance performers to enhance their performances by: A: Promoting glycogen sparing B: Providing an acid-base balance C: Being a diuretic D: Assisting thermoregulation ANSWER: A: Promoting glycogen sparing

  49. 247. A psychlogical sign of overtraining is: A: Loss of competitive drive B: Loss of appetite C: Loss of muscle tone D: All of the above ANSWER: A: Loss of competitive drive

  50. 248. Direct observation: A: Is most effective in the workplace setting B: Allows for collection of contextual information C: Is time efficient D: Is unobtrusive ANSWER: B: Allows for collection of contextual information

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